If the product of two whole numbers is $1$, can we say that one or both of them will be $1$? Justify through examples.

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If the product of $2$ numbers is $1$, then both the numbers have to equal to $1$. For example, $1×1=1$ However, $1×6=6$ Clearly, the product of two whole numbers will be $1$ in the situation when both numbers to be multiplied are $1$.